Mathematics - Quadratic Equation Question with Solution | TestHub

$f(x)=0$ always has irrational roots

$\left|f\left(\frac{p}{q}\right)\right|\ge \frac{1}{q^2}$ where $p,q\in I$

If a.c $=1$, then equation must have exactly one root $\alpha$ such that $[\alpha ]=-1$, where [.] is greatest integer function

equation has rational roots