Mathematics - Mathematical Reasoning Question with Solution | TestHub

The inverse of the given conditional is $\sim p\to \sim (\sim q\wedge \sim r)\equiv \sim p\to (q\vee r)$. If this statement is false, it implies that $\sim p$ is true and $(q\vee r)$ is false. Therefore, $p$ is false, and both $q$ and $r$ are false.